I’m sure that we all know the verse from 1 John 4:19… “We love Him, because He first loved us.” Well, I’m just curious if it would also be correct to say: “God loved us, because He first loved Himself.” I’m thinking that if God is all glorious, and worthy of praise, then His love for us must be the overflow of His love for His own glory. I’ve been reading “God is the Gospel” by John Piper and this was one of my thoughts…
What do you all think?
J. C. Hahne
My opinion: Totally!If His loving Himself is rejoicing in His own perfections (His holiness, majesty, love, wisdom, power and righteousness, etc.) and His loving us is letting us experience and adore His perfections, then it makes sense that His love for us flows out of His love for Himself.